# Solutions

Get detailed explanations to advanced GMAT questions.

### Question

If the sum of the consecutive integers from –42 to n inclusive is 372, what is the value of n?

Option A:

47

Option B:

48

Option C:

49

Option D:

50

Option E:

51

### Difficulty Level

Medium### Solution

Option D is the correct answer.

### Option Analysis

Number of terms =42+1+n=(n+43)

To find the sum = Formula = (n/2)(a+l), where n is the number of terms and ‘a’ and ‘l’ is the first term and last term.

Sum=372=((n+43)∗(n−42))/2

744=(n+43)∗(n−42) n=50

OR

42 terms after zero and 42 terms below zero will total 0. So, our new question will be consecutive integers with first term 43 have sum 372, what is the last term: ((43+n)/2)∗(n−43+1)=372 (n+43)∗(n−42)=744 n=50

### Related Questions

- A farmer who grows strawberries defines a “workday yield” as the number of litres of strawberries that…

- If 2s > 8 and 3t < 9, which of the following could be the value of s-t?

- In the triangle above, is x > 90?

- If two copying machines work simultaneously at their respective constant rates, how many copies do…

- Points P, R, M and S lie on the number line shown. The coordinate of R is 0. The distance between…